*Inherit the Wind *is one of my all-time favorite movies, but that’s not was this question is all about.

You are watching: What does inherit the wind mean

If I’m not mistaken the original line in the bible reads “He who troubleth his own house shall inherit the wind.” Now, I just heard someone on TV referring to someone “inheriting the wind.” That guy’s remark made me realize that I really don’t know what exactly the phrase means. (FWIW, the usage by the fellow on TV did not clarify things.)

Can someone set me straight?

Thanks all, in advance.


You build a house (and make to family) to avoid troubles like the wind (or fighting and have people you can trust), but if you bring in troubles into your house it is the same if you never had a house–the wind (fighting, mistrust) is inside.


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Jesus_Harold_Christ:

You build a house (and make to family) to avoid troubles like the wind (or fighting and have people you can trust), but if you bring in troubles into your house it is the same if you never had a house–the wind (fighting, mistrust) is inside.

What did the phrase have to do with the plot of the movie?


The full line is actually:

He that troubleth his own house shall inherit the wind:and the fool shall be servant to the wise of heart.

The second line clarifies a little. However, it’s a little hard to draw parallels, is the one who troubled his own house Cates*? If so, “the fool” seems to be referring to “he” and his case was certainly portrayed as the protagonist/correct side of the debate… on the other hand, the “servant” side makes a little sense. If you extend the overarching ramifications of the trial, the parallels fit in more nicely… the law was “troubling” intelligent people/the country, but eventually they got proven wrong and became servants to the “wise” thinking men, but It’s still a bit of a stretch.*I’m using movie names just for ease of comparison.


Jragtop top November 18, 2008, 11:08to be #6
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Jragon:

The full line is actually:

He that troubleth his own house shall inherit the wind:and the fool shall be servant to the wise of heart.

The second line clarifies a little. However, it’s a little hard to draw parallels, is the one who troubled his own house Cates*? If so, “the fool” seems to be referring to “he” and his case was certainly portrayed as the protagonist/correct side of the debate… on the other hand, the “servant” side makes a little sense. If you extend the overarching ramifications of the trial, the parallels fit in more nicely… the law was “troubling” intelligent people/the country, but eventually they got proven wrong and became servants to the “wise” thinking men, but It’s still a bit of a stretch.*I’m using movie names just for ease of comparison.

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Missed edit:I should add that the Old Testament often equates the court (uh… the court) with wisdom and we often equate education (Cates) with the passing of wisdom so there’s a sort of “schism” in that if the court is wise, and the passers of wisdom are passing on contrary ideas… who’s right? Is the teacher in the wrong because he’s not passing wisdom correctly? Or is the old wisdom getting in the way of the new wisdom?

Some food for thought to give the quote a little context:Proverbs 1:7 “The fear of the Lord is the beginning of knowledge; Fools despise wisdom and instruction.”

Anyway, I need to sleep and can’t think straight, maybe that’ll spark a little discussion at least.